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How can it be considered a foward laterall when the other team recorded it? If a QB is over the line of scrimmage and throws a INT, he's still an INT isn't it? It's also debatable wether or not that ball went foward or not.
And I don't need to "chill" I think it's dumb how you say USC would win if the calls where right in your first post, then your 2nd post is full of "Ifs"
IF that INT got called right, Texas would have had the ball and would have stopped USC from scoring, Texas could have scored again IF that call was right. IF Texas had the ball more time could have come off the clock too. I'm not flipping out here, it's just hilarious how 2 calls that went Texas's way automaticlly gave them the win, USC got calls too. Texas basically handed USC this game in the 1st quater and they couldn't do anything with it too. USC did not deserve to win.
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