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Originally Posted by YOUR Hero
Considering none of that was ever proven, you've made a huge leap in judgement. Lets forget about that however for a minute.
Lets say she did have sex 48 hours before being raped. How is that relevant? Are you saying that if you and your wife make love and she's raped within 48 hours after the fact, she's a slut.. she wasn't really raped?
Lets say 48 hours after being raped she has sex. Does that negate the fact she was raped? Are you saying if your wife is raped and you and her have sex 48 hours or so after the fact, for whatever reason, she is giving up her right to press charges?
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Answer to both your questions: No.
What if she had rough sex 48 hours before being rapped? That sex session left marks and bruising.
Its not hard to claim those bruises were left by someone else you just had consenual sex with. It doesnt mean she wasnt rapped. It doesnt mean she was rapped. But the pure fact that someone else could have caused that damage is relevent. Anyone arguing that really needs to give their head a shake.
Same thing with 48 hours after the alledged rape. If there is even the remote possibilty that any damage to her body was caused by someone else, other than the accused, the defence has every right to know about it.
If it was my wife, i'd hope she'd come to me and tell me what happened. I honestly dont know how'd i'd react and pray i'll never have to find out.
If this woman was actually rapped, I take all the slut comments back, and will call myself a hige asshole.
But if she did have sex with Kobe, and then rough sex to leave bruising with someone else, just so she can get money...then all my comments stand.